r/DebateAChristian • u/3BallCornerPocket • 14h ago
Salvation based on word of mouth
There are many ways to tackle my biggest hurdle with Christianity: why is it reliant on word of mouth.
One example I have is hyper specific: what happened to all the people, who did not and could not have heard of Jesus’ death and resurrection before it was evangelized?
For example: people in Africa, the Americas, etc. they clearly didn’t have the same concept of the Judeo god. I assume they were already banned to hell.
But AFTER the resurrection, they certainly didn’t have the ability to learn of it before it would reach them (impossible by word of mouth) and before they would get a chance to read the transcriptions later turned into text (impossible logistically for hundreds of years).
Simply put: if I were in Africa and somehow knew of the Judeo god, when Christ died and was resurrected, I would literally not know until someone told me or I got a copy of the transcripts of what had happened. Does that mean they all were destined to hell?
I know the current biblical standard is Romans which talks about all men knowing, but how is that a logistically possible?
Why would salvation be based on word of mouth accounts and doesn’t that certainly imply there are those who could
NOT have heard the word of god, especially after Jesus’ death and resurrection, but before it was even possible to share?
Wouldn’t that mean someone who died hours or days after Christ be banned to hell because they couldn’t have heard the news?
Now in current time, it’s hard to understand how your salvation is completely dependent on human evangelism. In some regions it’s logically impossible: what happens to them?